California: “GREEN BUILDING CONSUMER
PROTECTION” Questions only (no answers)
Answers will be revealed with proper subscription
1. Who originated the term “420”?
a. Employees of High Times Magazine
b. A group of high school students in San Rafael, California
c. Musicians in San Francisco
d. Concert goers in Woodstock, NY
California: GREEN BUILDING CONSUMER
2. Which of the following would be considered a grow house?
a. A house where growing children live
b. A house in a neighborhood with growing incomes
c. A house that is used to grow marijuana plants
d. A property that is appreciating faster than the statewide average
3. All of the following are signs that a home has been used as a grow house EXCEPT _______.
a. Improperly wired electrical systems
b. Extensive mold
c. Re-routed and unusual ventilation systems
d. The presence of hippies
4. In Colorado, a 3,000 square foot warehouse was estimated to produce how much revenue?
a. $10,000 every 2 months
b. $500,000 per year
c. $10 million a quarter
d. The warehouse was losing money, but it was projected to turn a small profit next year
5. Have crime rates changed in neighborhoods when marijuana dispensaries open?
a. There is limited evidence, but it shows that marijuana dispensaries have not increased crime rates – in one neighborhood, the dispensary contributed to lowering the crime rate
b. Yes, crime rates skyrocket in neighborhoods with marijuana dispensaries
c. Crime rates universally drop to zero in neighborhoods with dispensaries
d. Crime rates increase in quantity, but decrease in severity (more theft, less homicides)
6. Which state below have legalized recreational marijuana use?
a. Alabama
b. Missouri
c. Colorado
d. Nebraska
7. Which state was the first to legalize medical marijuana?
a. California
b. Colorado
c. Washington
d. Oregon
8. If a banking instruction wished to file a Suspicious Activity Report on one of their account holders, which federal agency would receive the report?
a. US Department of Agriculture
b. The Internal Revenue Service
c. The Department of the Treasury
d. The US Forest Service
9. Does an employer have to allow an employee to smoke marijuana on the job if it has been prescribed by a physician?
a. Yes, otherwise they are in violation of the Americans with Disabilities Act
b. No, employers do not have to make any accommodations for any employees based on medical conditions
c. No, marijuana use is not covered in the Americans with Disabilities Act and it is still federally illegal
d. Yes, if medical marijuana is legal in the state of employment
10. Can federal agents arrest individuals for marijuana possession?
a. Only if the individual was on federal land during the arrest
b. Only in states that still consider marijuana illegal
c. Yes, in any state, although federal agencies consider prosecuting marijuana possession as a low priority
d. Yes and they are cracking down on marijuana users all over the US
11. If a real estate licensee specializes in marijuana properties, should they advise their clients on how to comply with state and local laws?
a. Yes, that is part of the specialty
b. No, unless they are also licensed attorneys
c. Yes, interpreting law is part of a real estate agent’s job
d. No, unless the client wants to go into business with their agent
12. How many plants can a homeowner legally grow in their own home?
a. 0
b. 3
c. 50
d. It depends on the state and local laws
13. What can a home buyer to do minimize the chances of buying a home that has been damaged from growing marijuana?
a. Do not buy a home in a state where growing marijuana is legal
b. Look at the history of utility bills
c. Ask the town offices if a registered marijuana growing facility was licensed in the home
d. Have a thorough home inspection by a qualified inspector
14. Most of the water on earth is found in these two forms:
a. Salt water and frozen water
b. Lake and river water
c. Groundwater and well water
d. Pond and spring water
15. The process when water changes from a liquid to a gas at the surface of the oceans is called:
a. Freezing
b. Condensation
c. Evaporation
d. Sublimation
16. What are the two top uses of residential water in homes?
a. Toilets and washing machines
b. Faucets and showerheads
c. Leaks and washing machines
d. Toilets and faucets
17. The WaterSense label is given to products which are:
a. 20% more efficient than is typical
b. Twice as efficient as typical
c. Costing substantially less than is typical
d. 50% more energy-efficient
18. What is the water factor for a washing machine that uses 9 gallons with a capacity of 3 cubic feet?
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6
19. An aerator is a component that helps reduce flow rate on:
a. Toilets
b. Washing machines
c. Faucets
d. Dishwashers
20. A shower releases 10 gallons of water over a 2-minute period. What is the flow rate?
a. 20 gallons per minute
b. 12 gallons per minute
c. 5 gallons per minute
d. 4 gallons per minute
21. What is the most likely place in a home where asbestos could be found?
a. Insulation
b. The Basement
c. Paint on the walls
d. Stored in the garage
22. The Energy Star Label given by the United States EPA is for products that ____ .
a. Conserve water
b. Reduce air pollution
c. Minimize energy use
d. Reduce environmental toxins
23. A family uses 200 kWh during the month. If the power company charges $0.10 per kWh, how much will they pay for their energy?
a. $2,000
b. $200
c. $20
d. $2
24. Mercury, a dangerous neurotoxin, is released into the atmosphere when this fuel is used to generate electricity.
a. Propane
b. Natural gas
c. Biomass
d. Coal
25. Founded in 2002, ________________ is the first and one of the largest green real estate training facilitators offering a green designation.
a. ASHRE™
b. The FTC
c. Eco Broker™
d. LEED™
26. _____________________ is the design and arrangement of openings in a building envelope.
a. PES — Permanent entryway system
b. Low-flow faucet design
c. Fenestration
d. None of the answers shown
27. Green building should ________ the efficiency of energy, water, and materials used in buildings while ___________ environmental and negative health impacts.
a. Sustain, increasing
b. Reduce, sustaining
c. Increase, reducing
d. Advance, increasing
28. Sustainable design (or green design) begins with an understanding that building choices are not made in _________________.
a. Green buildings
b. Isolation
c. LEED™ construction
d. Eco Broker™ buildings
29. It was during the 1980s that the term _____________entered our vocabularies and the _______________ shifted into high gear.
a. Sustainable, Eco Brokers
b. Green Building, green movement
c. Eco Broker, green designation courses
d. Metro rail, NAR Smart Growth movement
30. Designing and installing efficient HVAC systems should:
a. Result in a reduction in energy use
b. Only be undertaken if the HVAC unit is more than 20 years old
c. Include use of CFC-based refrigerants
d. Reduce irrigation demands and capture rainwater
31. Chlorofluorocarbons ___________.
a. Have exceptionally long atmospheric life which, in certain cases, even extends to 100 years
b. Are preferred refrigerants by environmentalists
c. Are renewable energy sources
d. None of the answers shown
32. A ______________ previously occupied the site on which the NAR Building is now located.
a. Gas station
b. Super 8
c. CFC
d. None of the answers shown
33. NAR used native and adaptive plant species in the landscape around their Washington, D.C. building to:
a. Reduce irrigation demands
b. Increase indoor air quality
c. Reduce use of CFC-based refrigerants in the building
d. None of the above answers is correct
34. All of the following are considered renewable energy sources except:
a. All are renewable sources
b. Solar
c. Water
d. Oil
35. The designers of the NAR award-winning D.C. building installed a carbon dioxide CO2 monitoring system to:
a. Introduce fresh air in response to increases in occupancy
b. Provide views for 90% of all occupied work areas
c. Detect smoking throughout the building, including first-floor restaurants
d. No CO2 monitoring system was installed
36. Which is true of ASHRE?
a. Advances technology to serve humanity and promote a sustainable world with regard to landscaping
b. Stands for the American Society of Heating, Refrigerating and Air-Conditioning Engineers
c. Sets forth codes for HVAC systems
d. Is Fannie Mae’s only HVAC subsidiary
37. The ENERGY STAR® Homes program promotes voluntary partnerships with home builders to construct new homes that are ________ more energy-efficient.
a. 10%
b. 20%
c. 30%
d. 40%
38. Most of the $1,900 that the average family spends per year on energy bills goes to which source?
a. Water
b. Electricity
c. Sewage
d. Heating/Cooling
39. Industry professionals are concerned about mandatory labels because 60% of homes were built prior to:
a. 1970
b. 1980
c. 1990
d. 2000
40. _________________________ block damaging ultraviolet sunlight that can discolor carpets and furnishings.
a. High efficiency HVAC systems
b. R-19 wall insulation helps
c. High efficiency windows
d. Single-pane windows
41. Independent Home Energy raters are used by ENERGY STAR® to:
a. Verify energy efficiency measures are in place
b. Test for radon and wood-destroying insect infestation
c. Determine if a property is eligible for its LEED™ certification
d. All of the above
42. When air is heated, it moves. How does hot air move?
a. Hot air rises
b. Hot air falls
c. Hot air moves laterally only
d. Hot air does not move
43. The program created by the U.S. EPA to help consumers make smart energy and environmentally-conscious choices is called:
a. Energy, Energy, Energy!
b. No Energy Left Behind
c. Energy Star
d. Your World, Your Energy
44. Energy use in homes, buildings, and industry represents what fraction of greenhouse gas emissions in the United States?
a. One-quarter
b. One-third
c. One-half
d. Two-thirds
45. A home can be certified with the Energy Star Label in the following manner(s):
a. The Prescriptive Path
b. The Performance Path
c. Both the Prescriptive Path and the Performance Path
d. Homes cannot be certified with the Energy Star Label
46. Which of the following is NOT one of the four checklists that must be completed for a home to be Energy Star Certified?
a. Thermal Enclosure System Rater Checklist
b. HVAC System Quality Installation Rater Checklist
c. HVAC System Quality Installation Contractor Checklist
d. All of the above are checklists that must be completed
47. Once the attic is taken care of, the next best place to check when sealing and insulating a home is:
a. Doors and windows
b. Ducts
c. Basement or crawlspace
d. No other places need sealing and insulating
48. When checking for insulation levels in an attic, you measure 10 inches of insulation and believe it is R-3 per inch. What is the level of total R-Value?
a. R-10
b. R-13
c. R-30
d. R-3
49. If you inspect the attic and see lightweight granules of insulation, gray or whitish in color, it is most likely:
a. Fiberglass
b. Cellulose
c. Rock wool
d. Vermiculite
50. A home in zone 8 should have an attic insulated in the range R-49 to R-60. If you inspect an attic and find there to be 25 inches of R-3 cellulose insulation, this attic is _________.
a. Insulated within the recommended range
b. Insulated more than the recommended range
c. Insulated less than the recommended range
d. Not enough information to tell
51. Medium to Low Flood Risk areas are shown on the _____ as zones labeled with the letters B, C, and X.
a. Ocean and river maps
b. Topographic maps
c. FEMA flood maps
d. All of the answers shown
52. Base Flood elevation maps are prepared by ________.
a. GSA
b. NAHM
c. NFIP
d. BFE
53. The _____ represent 1% of the annual chance of flood.
a. BFE
b. GSA
c. NFIP
d. NAHM
54. Flood hazards and characteristics of flooding must be identified in order to:
a. All of the answers shown
b. Prioritize retrofit measures for existing critical facilities
c. Design floodproofing measures
d. Evaluate the impact of site development and calculate flood loads
55. Flood hazard maps show which of the following?
a. Floodplain characteristics
b. Base Flood Elevation
c. Risk Zone
d. All of the answers shown
56. The Homeowner Flood Insurance Affordability Act of 2014 _____ in flood insurance premiums mandated by the Biggert-Waters Act of 2012.
a. Expedited the increases
b. Delayed the rebates
c. Expedited the rebates
d. Delayed the increases
57. Insurance premiums collected were insufficient in covering payouts after major flooding events. In the 1960s, flood insurance became completely unprofitable for ______ .
a. Allstate
b. AAA
c. CitiBank
d. Private Insurance
58. In ______, the National Flood Insurance Act established the National Flood Insurance Program (NFIP), which allows property owners to purchase insurance.
a. 1994
b. 2014
c. 1960
d. 1968
59. If losses are not covered by flood insurance, then the homeowner of a declared disaster area would be entitled to apply for a loan through SBA or FEMA for _____ .
a. Replacement of outbuildings
b. Maximum replacement of in-ground pool
c. Replacement of porch railings
d. Minimal replacement of items that would make the home habitable
60. Flood-prone properties occupied by people least likely to be in a position to recover from flood disasters, further _____ , is known as adverse selection.
a. Decreasing demand for insurance
b. Decreasing demand for aid
c. Increasing demand for aid
d. None of the answers shown
61. Flood insurance covers _______ buildings up to $250,000.
a. Residential
b. Manufacturing
c. Commercial
d. Hospital
62. The typical 30-day waiting period for flood insurance coverage to become effective is waived if the building is in a(n) _____.
a. NFIP
b. GSA
c. SFHA
d. None of the answers shown
63. A real estate agent should notify his or her client if the prospective home is in a High Risk Area or _____.
a. SFHA
b. NFIP
c. GSA
d. None of the answers shown
64. Flood map changes in your community may affect _____ , and could delay a loan closing.
a. Severe storm tracking
b. Flood insurance applications
c. Flood insurance purchase requirements
d. All of the answers shown
65. The _____ will require that the homeowner purchase flood insurance if the home is in a SFHA.
a. Underwriter
b. Real estate agent
c. Real estate broker
d. Lender
66. How can documents be reliably deleted from a computer?
a. Delete all files.
b. Empty “Trash” or “Recycle Bins” frequently.
c. Conduct a disk sweep after each transaction is complete.
d. Digitally shred files with special software.
67. Encrypted communication prevents hackers from accessing emailed documents.
a. True: encryption is like a firewall that follows the document to its destination.
b. False: a hacker can see the file, but it will be extremely difficult to read it.
c. True: encryption requires a strong password in order to view a file.
d. False: encryption is an obsolete technology.
68. What is piggybacking?
a. Using a friend’s user ID and password in order to use a fee-for-service website.
b. Using an unsecured internet connection without the owner’s consent.
c. Sending a virus as an attachment to an email.
d. A special kind of cookie that follows an internet user around an entire browsing session.
69. Is piggybacking potentially harmful to the individual who owns the account being piggybacked?
a. No, it is annoying, but not harmful.
b. Yes, the account owner may be liable for illegal acts, such as downloading child pornography.
c. No, piggybacking can actually boost browsing speed for the account owner.
d. Yes, piggybacking can result in back pain.
70. A strong password contains which of the following?
a. Uppercase and lowercase letters
b. Numbers
c. Symbols
d. All of the answers shown.
71. What is required by most states in order to keep digital records of real estate transactions?
a. The digital records must be kept on a password-protected computer.
b. Records must be easily accessible by members of the public under the Freedom of Information Act.
c. All digital records must have hard-copy backup.
d. Having records accessible by those authorized to see them, and having the records accurately reflect the content of the transaction.
72. If a real estate agent wished to use electronic signatures for an in-state transaction, which regulations should s/he be aware of?
a. Uniform Electronic Transactions Act (UETA)
b. Administrative Rules from the Real Estate Regulatory Agency
c. Declaratory Rulings by the Real Estate Regulatory Agency
d. All of the answers shown
73. What does “nonrepudiation” mean?
a. The authenticity of a signature can be proven.
b. A signature is not valid in any court of law.
c. A contract is valid only if notarized by a Notary Public.
d. A signature is easily proven to be false.
74. What is the difference between ESIGN and UETA?
a. ESIGN is a law that governs electronic signatures; UETA covers authentication of the signatures.
b. ESIGN is the updated form of the Federal UETA law.
c. UETA is the updated form of the Federal ESIGN law.
d. ESIGN is the federal law for interstate or international electronic transactions; UETA is similar, but for in-state transactions in states that have adopted this law.
75. Which of the following is a digital signature most like?
a. Authentication by a Notary Public
b. An ink signature
c. A person’s blood type
d. A family tree
76. Why is contact management an important feature in document and transaction management software?
a. Buyer and seller contact information will auto-populate form fields.
b. Contact information for all parties to the transaction are available in one place.
c. Contact management is not an important feature.
d. Both a and b.
77. All of your clients are going to appreciate having a paperless transaction and you should email all transaction documents to them.
a. No, don’t make the assumption that they will all embrace digital documents. Ask them what their preferences are.
b. Yes, everyone is going green and they are going to love it.
c. Yes, this is the most convenient option for all of your buyers and sellers.
d. No, having a paperless transaction benefits only the real estate licensee.
78. What is the purpose of installing software such as Adobe Acrobat?
a. To edit photos
b. To create slideshows
c. To convert files and webpages to PDF format
d. None of the above
79. Which of the following is a feature of transaction management software?
a. Ability to grant file access to other parties to the transaction.
b. Ability to track dates and deadlines pertinent to the transaction.
c. Ability to sync dates and deadlines to iCalendar, Outlook and Google.
d. All of the above.
80. Which of the following is a good resource for finding software vendors?
a. NAR
b. State association
c. Local association
d. All of the above
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